Board Thread:Lore Discussion/@comment-98.224.165.94-20140223210359/@comment-93.144.115.212-20141012111313

I'm the Latinist TLDR poster from above, though using a different computer.

I'd like to point out to the Spanish speaker right above that veReor and veNeRor are two different verbs, and that they do not have an Indo-European etymology in common. Despite all this, they share one of their meanings (to revere sb/sthg) and one of their sentence constructions (verb + accusative). Therefore, such a mistake is not that grave - though vereor chiefly means "to fear sb/sthg", and can equate to "to revere sb/sthg" only when intended as "to show reverence to sb/sthg out of fear".

Next, it should be noted that a translation such as "I revere the night" is sintactically impossible, as "nox" is not an accusative (direct object), but instead a nominative (subject), or a vocative at most (o night). As of today, I have found no irregular Latin declension of "nox" as regards the accusative case, so the consideration above can be viewed as valid unless the DS staff admit to using sloppy Latin.

Finally, light can be shed on the "fear myself / me venero" controversy by understanding that Latin and the Romance languages (at least as regards the three I can speak) are not that similar in sentence construction, in fact in Latin:

_Articles do not exist (though a similar effect can be obtained by means of some pronouns, especially in Vulgar Latin);

_An explicit subject is almost never needed as long as the subject can be understood from the context;

_More accurately, almost every part of the sentence can be implied (a potent headache maker for translators): this is the case for reflexive pronouns with some verbs (which is generally indicated in the vocabulary and, yes, "vereor" can be one of these verbs);

Therefore, were the same valid for Spanish too, "I, the night, fear myself" could be translated as "Noche, venero".